Controller Knowledge Test 2 (CKT2) Practice Exam

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• How do ATC and pilots use METAR, TAF, and ATIS/AWOS information?
• On a flight progress strip, how is an aircraft conflict indicated?
• What is the difference between vectoring and issuing direct routing?
• How should you interpret and act on NOTAMs that affect a runway’s availability?
• Ensure any unresolved questions are answered when which action occurs?
• What is the recommended sequence for handing off an IFR inbound from Approach to Tower?
• What is a PIREP and why is it important to ATC?
• Which are considered minimum IFR altitudes?
• For arriving aircraft, radio communications are transferred and which item must be identified early enough for the receiving facility to clear?
• Which of the following best describes an Alert area?
• When making route assignments, use airways and routes consistent with the altitude stratum being used.
• MSA ensures obstacle clearance around a VOR/airport.
• Which airspace designation is depicted on aeronautical charts to indicate areas with high volume training or unusual activity?
• During high-traffic periods, how should you handle frequency congestion or radio failures?
• What does an altitude/flight level underlined in red indicate?
• During a handoff, which item must be transmitted?
• Which of the following describes extreme turbulence?
• What is the difference between ADS-B Out and ADS-B In?
• Which statement about minimum IFR altitude is true?
• What is ADS-B and what benefits does it bring to ATC operations?
• For a course of 150 degrees, which altitude should be assigned for IFR flight?
• For airborne military flights, which information should be forwarded to FSS?
• ADS-B In provides data from others for display and awareness.
• Who is advised when an ELT is heard or reported?
• Which statement describes the 44 knot rule?
• ATD stands for which distance measure?
• Under which condition are SAR aircraft afforded maximum assistance?
• What does a status information area indicate?
• How is weather information disseminated to pilots, and what should you consider before issuing a weather advisory?
• Which statement about Class G airspace is true?
• Which airspace is reserved for military or other special activities, such as Restricted, Prohibited, MOA, and Warning Areas?
• Data block containing (mismatch) MISM requires
• EVRI stands for which indicator?
• What is the purpose of a STAR and how does it aid sequencing?
• Which statement about METAR reports is true?
• Which statement best describes priority for military air evacuation flights?
• What is the standard en route separation minimum below FL180?
• Pilots flying under which condition must operate under VMC?
• Automatic track initiation may occur for aircraft with which combination?
• When are search and rescue (SAR) aircraft given maximum assistance?
• What does MVA stand for in ATC terminology?
• What are the primary components of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
• In an IFR departure clearance, when is the airport of departure included?
• What information is typically conveyed by FDC NOTAMs?
• Which practice helps ensure pilots correctly acknowledge hold-short instructions?
• SIGMET is an acronym for which of the following?
• Which controller is primarily responsible for sequencing and spacing inbound traffic in the terminal area?
• Two departing aircraft are planned to diverge by 90 degrees after takeoff; what is the earliest permissible release time?
• Which statement best describes forwarding arrival information to non-approach towers?
• In a holding clearance, which direction must be used if turns are specified?
• Controllers should retain the full or alternate data block until the aircraft is exited the sector or the delegated airspace and which condition is met?
• What is the jet route altitude stratum?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of Special Use Airspace?
• Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to which group?
• What is a key benefit of ADS-B for ATC surveillance?
• Among ATC actions, which has the highest priority?
• Which statement correctly describes 'Line Up and Wait' compared to 'Cleared for Takeoff'?
• What does transponder code 7500 indicate?
• If a data block shows a MISM mismatch, which is the recommended immediate response?
• Specify initial heading if necessary after soliciting or obtaining the pilot's concurrence at which type of airports?
• The briefing should be conducted at the ________.
• What do MSA and MEA stand for, and what do they ensure?
• VFR aircraft not in contact with ATC facility may squawk ____ while en route to/from/within designated fire fighting area
• During Enroute FDP operations, forward flight plan information is sent to which entities?
• Under which conditions are radar separation minima increased beyond the standard values?
• X in the C4 space in the full Data Block indicates
• Authorization for visual separation by a non-approach control tower comes from which facility?
• Which statement about PIREP best describes its nature?
• Beacon codes that end in numeral 00 are described as which type?
• What does the symbol Diamond on radar indicate?
• Which is the correct phraseology example when assigning a higher altitude?
• Which statement best describes radar vectoring versus procedural vectors?
• After obtaining the pilot's concurrence at uncontrolled airports, what action may be necessary?
• The relieving specialist shall
• If two departing aircraft will have 90-degree course divergence immediately after takeoff, what is the earliest time we can release them?
• Which of the following is a correct example of a radio message format to initiate an initial radio contact with an aircraft?
• Coordinate all efforts possible to assist any aircraft believed to be Lost, Overdue or which status?
• How does ATC contribute to preventing CFIT?
• Which action is required when a data block mismatch is detected as MISM?
• Which code may a VFR aircraft not in contact squawk while en route within a designated fire fighting area?
• The rule that separation exists between radials diverging by 15 degrees applies under which condition?
• Which of the following best describes MARSA?
• For airborne military flights, which information should be forwarded to FSS?
• After accepting an Interfacility Handoff, what must be verified for each aircraft?
• On initial contact or when position reports are received, you should request a pilot to confirm their assigned altitude unless which of the following is true?
• When an IFR inbound is approaching an airport with an active control tower, how should ATC perform the handoff?
• Which statement accurately describes a non-SID departure?
• What action should you take if the pilot's readback does not match the clearance?
• Specialists involved in the position relief process should take extra care when which of the following occurs?
• When initiating a vector a controller is required to advise the pilot of the ______?
• Which group contains all valid discreet beacon codes?
• CPDLC stands for Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications and reduces voice workload by using what?
• What does an X in the C4 space indicate?
• Prior to approving a point out, ensure which of the following is true?
• What symbol in space 28 of a flight progress strip indicates an aircraft has been cleared to depart from the fix?
• Which transponder mode is required when operating in class A airspace?
• What actions when doubt exists regarding target identification?
• In IFR operations, what is the standard lost communications AVEF procedure for route and altitude?
• Which discreet beacon code corresponds to an emergency?
• What does ATD stand for in full definition terms?
• For an IFR flight on a course of 150 degrees, which altitude assignment is correct?
• During an urgency condition, which phrase is repeated by the pilot three times?
• Under what condition is the clearance limit included as part of the arrival information to an approach control?
• In a holding pattern, how does the protected airspace area change as altitude and speed increase?
• What is the purpose of NOTAMs, and which types are commonly issued?
• When should an altitude be assigned after the climbing or descending clearance is issued and the aircraft leaves the altitude or reports leaving the altitude?
• Before a non-approach control tower can provide visual separation, what must be authorized?
• Which statement describes descent in the presence of published altitude restrictions on an arrival?
• Which statement describes the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA)?
• Which action best describes the relieving specialist's initial duty?
• What is a hold short instruction and when is it used?
• X in space B4 in a full data block indicates
• Two converging aircraft on radials diverging by 15 degrees: at what point will separation be lost?
• Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) permits VFR operations inside controlled airspace under which conditions?
• The status information area is defined as which of the following?
• What is a published holding pattern and what are the common entry procedures?
• Which statement best describes Class G airspace?
• Which are conditions under which IFR aircraft can be vectored?
• In automated handoff between non-ERAM facilities, verbally coordinate to verify the position of which targets?
• What is the correct phraseology example when assigning a specific beacon code to an aircraft?
• What is an MVA (minimum vectoring altitude) and how is it used?
• What does transponder code 7600 indicate and how should ATC respond?
• In an Instrument Landing System, which component provides lateral guidance to the runway centerline?
• What are the steps after issuing 'cleared for the approach'?
• Which altitude setting is used to determine the lowest usable flight level?
• What is the correct example of phraseology when assigning a higher altitude?
• Which of the following is NOT a possible content of Field E?
• What is the function of Transponder Mode C in ATC surveillance?
• What is the purpose of Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) and Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs)?
• On initial contact or when position reports are received, you should request a pilot to confirm his or her assigned altitude unless which of the following is true?
• Which of the following best describes coast tracks in radar or non-radar separation applications?
• What is a characteristic of abbreviated departure clearance?
• In the context of handoffs, which targets are explicitly verified during verbal coordination?
• Prior to approving a point out, which condition qualifies as sufficient validation?
• What is the correct standard phraseology to initiate a handoff to another controller?
• Which of the following is an example of a special condition indicator that Field E may reference?
• What is the upper limit of the jet route altitude stratum?
• Solicit PIREP when there is reported turbulence in your area of jurisdiction at what intensity?
• Which statement is true regarding automatic track initiation prerequisites?
• When radar identification is questionable, what immediate action should be taken?
• How should you issue a descent clearance when there is a published altitude restriction on the arrival?
• What is an ILS critical area hold and why is it necessary?
• What are typical radar separation minima in en-route airspace?
• Discontinue issuance of safety alerts when ___ informs you that action is being taken to resolve the unsafe situation
• What best defines a point out in ATC operations?
• Which phraseology correctly forwards flight information to JAN approach?
• ATC facilities shall provide inflight separation unless which of the following is applicable?
• In a holding clearance, when must the direction of turns be indicated?
• Which statement best describes Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) and Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs)?
• Which NOTAM type provides regulatory information affecting flight operations?
• At FL350, how many miles should separate the outermost aircraft from a nonstandard formation flight?
• Which airspace class typically requires ATC clearance to enter and provides a controlled environment for IFR operations?
• To identify a primary target by comparing its position relative to a fix with the aircraft's direct position report, which element must be displayed?
• If radar identification is questionable for any reason, what immediate action should be taken?
• Which is the correct phraseology to have a clearance relayed through a non ATC facility?
• What is the difference between a SID and a non-SID departure?
• Select the phraseology to forward the appropriate flight information to JAN approach.
• Lateral separation provided for an aircraft on an established airway or route and within how many miles from the NAVAID is 4 miles either side of the center line?
• What are wake turbulence categories and how do they influence required separation?
• What does transponder code 7700 indicate and how should ATC respond?
• What is the purpose of minimum IFR altitude (MIA) or minimum safe altitude?
• An aircraft emergency is considered to exist when which signal is heard or reported?
• Which item is included in an IFR departure clearance when the airport of departure is being relayed by a noncontrol facility?
• Radar separation must be applied to all RNAV aircraft operating at or below FL450 or ____ on a random route.
• How often do ATC personnel monitor radio and interphone frequencies?
• Beacon codes ending in 00 are described as which of the following in terms of discreteness?
• The destination airport name must be specified in the approach clearance at which type of airports?
• Aircraft must be equipped with an operable transponder with Mode C altitude reporting in which airspace?
• Which statement best describes a prohibited area?
• On a flight progress strip, which symbol space 28 indicates an aircraft has been cleared to depart from the fix?
• Which of the following best describes the data Field E may contain in the data block?
• What is clearance readback verification and why is it important?
• What are you required to do when a pilot declares 'minimum fuel'?
• What is the correct phraseology to have an aircraft squawk an emergency code when not radar identified?
• B1 through B3 of the full data block may contain assigned altitude information or ___
• Which statement best describes when an altitude should be assigned after an aircraft leaves its previously assigned altitude?
• What does METAR/TAF provide?
• Before a non-approach control tower can provide visual separation between an IFR arrival and an IFR departure, which condition must be met?
• What is Data Communications (D-ATC) and when is it used?
• A flat track is indicated on the display by which symbol?
• What is the primary advantage of using an abbreviated departure clearance?
• A handoff is complete when the receiving controller which action occurs?
• What is the primary objective of air traffic control (ATC)?
• What is the lower limit of the jet route altitude stratum?
• In a standard departure clearance, the normal clearance limit is usually the destination airport. Which option best completes the statement?
• Which statement about automatic track initiation is accurate?
• Consider separation to exist between aircraft established on radials of the same NAVAID that diverge by at least ___ degrees when either aircraft is clear of the airspace to be protected for the other aircraft
• How does speed control assist ATC in the terminal area?
• What is a clearance void time?
• Which option best describes an ILS critical area hold?
• In an Instrument Landing System, which component provides vertical guidance to the runway?
• When may a heading after a departure be flown without pilot concurrence?
• MARSA stands for which of the following?
• ATCAA is an acronym for which airspace designation?
• Automatic track initiation may occur with which condition?
• Which symbol indicates a paired beacon?
• What is the lowest usable flight level when the altimeter setting is 30.28?
• To manage wake turbulence after a heavy aircraft departure or arrival, ATC may do which of the following?
• If an aircraft is in lateral tolerance but out of longitudinal tolerance, what action does the computer take?
• Which strategy helps prevent runway incursions at busy airports?
• Which approach to speed control most effectively supports spacing and sequencing in the terminal area?
• In an emergency, what is ATC's primary priority?
• When the computer correlates the predicted position, speed and heading with which data using flight plan information, the target is considered paired?
• When is it permissible to transfer radio communication to an aircraft after a handoff has been accepted and the aircraft has entered the receiving controller's airspace?
• In which airspace are aircraft required to have an operating transponder with Mode C?
• Which airspace requires a Mode C transponder?
• Do not use ___ tracks for in the application of Radar or Non-radar separation?
• Radar separation is required for RNAV aircraft operating at or below FL450 on which type of route?
• What information does a METAR provide?
• What are the typical roles of Approach Control versus Tower in the terminal area?
• Which statement best describes a point out in ATC operations?
• What is the primary method to identify a target using the fix relative to the aircraft's position?
• Which controller is primarily responsible for final approach clearance, runway operations, and ground movement near the runway?
• Which indicator is repeated by the pilot three times during an urgency condition?
• When a foreign air carrier is involved in an emergency, notify the ____?
• What best defines a handoff in air traffic control?
• How should ATC respond to a pilot declaring 'minimum fuel'?
• In a full data block, what condition is indicated by an X in B4?
• Which information is typically included in a handoff to the tower when an IFR inbound is approaching?
• During Enroute FDP operations, to which facilities should forward flight plan information be sent?
• How should controllers handle pilot readback of a clearance?